Saturday, December 31, 2011

BANK INTERVIEW-MORE TO LEARN


16.  Between new generation and public sector banks, which one will you select and why?
I will definitely select public sector because it was this sector which moved the economy of our country, after independence as visualised in Five Year Plans, making India, one of the most fast developing economies of the world.  I think, public sector banks have succeeded in fulfilling the very essence of nationalization by meeting the social objectives in its fullest extent.  I also believe that because of this sector, the financial crisis occurred in the west could not deeply afflict India.

17.  What career prospect do you see in Indian banking?
I see a great career prospect because in the coming seven years or so, nearly five lakh employees including officers are going to retire from public sector banks.  That itself opens up a great avenue to this wonderful field of public sector banking, both to new recruiters and those who are already employed.  Thus there is every opportunity for self development in banking than anywhere else.

18.  Are you prepared to go anywhere in India once you get the job?
Definitely sir.  As a responsible officer, it is my duty to serve the institution where it feels needy.  So I will move to the place of my posting without any hesitation or disappointment.

19.  Do you plan to continue any studies, once you get appointment in a public sector bank?
Yea, of course.  I will definitely continue my studies in banking which are already on, but in a more serious way.  I reckon that banking in India is still subjected to lot of transformations, which are aimed at making the system so pure and healthy.  Apart from being upto date with general banking knowledge,  I will take all efforts to learn the banking rules of my institution, in the least possible time.  It is also my earnest desire to take Diploma in Banking from Indian Institution of Bankers, which I believe will enrich my knowledge in banking.

20.  Have you got any account with any of the public sector banks?  What facilities did they offer?
Yes, I do have savings bank account with Punjab National Bank, one of the leading Nationalised banks.  They offered MICR cheque books and ATM card at the time of opening the account itself.  I do internet banking sitting at home for such matters as remittance of my insurance premium, payment of electricity and telephone bills, railway booking etc.,  They have even given me an application for enjoying mobile banking, the facility is yet to be availed.

Friday, December 30, 2011

BANK INTERVIEW-ABOUT YOUR DISTRICT


11.  What is the main crop in your area?  What are the favourable features for the same there?
The chief crop in my area is rice.  The black soil in Chittur taluk of Palakkad District  is highly suitable for its cultivation.  There is natural alkalinity in the soil (negative pH value) which is also favourable for its growth.  Added with this, the District is blessed with irrigation facilities.  Six out of the ten completed irrigation projects of Kerala are in Palakkad district. They are Walayar, Malampuzha, Cheerakuzhi, Gayathri (Meenkara, Chulliar), Malnagalam and Pothundy. In addition to this, the construction of two major irrigation projects, viz., Chitturpuzha and Kanhirapuzha are in progress.  This makes the district the rice bowl of Kerala. (Nellara)

12.  Name some of the educational institutions for higher studies in Palakkad
 There are a number of schools and colleges, including engineering colleges. Government Victoria College  was founded in 1866 and has many eminent persons as its former students. They include E. M. S. Namboodiripad, (the late Communist Party leader), T. N. Seshan, former Chief Election Commissioner, E. Sreedharan, the architect of Konkan Railway and Delhi Metro, writers like O. V. Vijayan and M. T. Vasudevan Nair and cartoonist Ravi Shankar.
      The NSS College of Engineering  is an institution founded in 1960 by the Nair Service  Society. The undergraduate admission into this engineering college is based on merit ranking in the Kerala engineering entrance exam. A sizeable number of seats are also reserved for students belonging to socially deprived castes and religious minorities, such as Muslims. The major engineering departments are Civil, Electrical and Electronics, Mechanical, Electronics & Communication, Instrumentation & Control and Computer science Engineering.
       The Chembai Memorial Music College, Government College Chittur, and NSS Colleges at Ottapalam and Nemmara are some of the older colleges in Palakkad. Royal dental college, chalissery

 

13.  Name some of the famous personalities from Palakkad

Several famous Kathakali artists are from Palakkad district, which include Pattikkanthodi Ravunni Nair, Vellinezhi Nanu Nair and Kalamandalam Raman kutty Nair. Poet Olappamanna, Jnanapeetom awardee M.T.Vasudevan Nair, Artist Nambudiri, Artist A.S., Kathakali Chenda Artist Krishnan kutty Poduval, Kathakali musician Unnikrishna kurup,Kathakali Maddhalam artist Cherpulassery Sivan, Dr.Sasi Tharoor(MP), Prakash Karat (CPI-M General Secretary), P.T.Bhaskara Panikkar,E.P.Gopalan, V.P.Menon and Prof.M.G.K.Menon are some other personalities hailing from Palakkad district.


14.  Could you state some art forms or sport events for which your district is famous?
Palakkad district has a traditional form of art known as "Nizhal Pava Koothu" (Shadow puppet play), which is presented in a shed made for this, during the festival seasons of certain selected temples, which include Puthanalikkal Temple of Cherpulassei, Palakkeezhu Temple of Mundur, Palakkad, etc. Both Chakyar koothu and Koodiyattom had its origin in this district. Porattu Natak and Kanyarkali are two art forms, which one cannot see anywhere in the State. Ox race, referred as Kalapoottu in Malayalam is celebrated in January month. This is the well known agrarian sport celebrated in Palakkad.  Cockfight (Kozhipporu) is also a sport event in the border regions of this district.

15.  Name some of the places of both tourist cultural importance in your district.
Sir, really a number of such places come into my mind.  Among these, the Palakkad Fort a historical monument constructed by Hyderali of Mysore in 1784, Malampuzha dam garden; Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary which is a virgin forest procted without human inhabitation; Silent Valley National Park, an ‘evergreen forest’in werstern ghats;  Killikkurussimangalam, the birth place of Kunjan Nambiar, the creator of Ottan thullal;  Nelliyampathi, popularly known as ‘poormen’s Ootty’;  Attappady, important for anthropologists because of the existence of many forms of tribal people (adivasis);  Jain Temple of Jainimedu;  Kalpathy, a place famous for music, dance and agraharas;  Chembai gramom, the birth place of Sri. Chembai Vaidya Natha Bhagavathar,  centre of music and culture are the most important ones.

Thursday, December 29, 2011

MORE INTERVIEW QUESTIONS & ANSWERS


The answers given are independent opinions of the blogger only.  Please try to give your versions to them.

6.  What do you think is your weakness?
I wanted to be a perfectionist, therefore I didn’t like to delegate to others. This was my character from my early childhood.  But later in life, I have found out that in order to get a work done easily, sharing of work is what is most important and I can say that I have almost rectified that weakness in me.
Or
I am such a sort of a person who used to meddle over unfinished assignments or tasks.  This was my character while studying and even when preparing for the bank exams.  For days on end, I won’t get good sleep or do take timely food.  This weakness of the mind, I try to overcome by doing yoga, meditation etc.,  and now I get the feeling that I’m more mentally stable and composed than before.

7. What have you done to improve your knowledge in the last year?
I have joined an institution called ‘Bankers Academy’ in Palakkad where eminent people give their experiences in banking.  They also teach the various modern banking functions in the changed environment. Also I used to read several magazines such as ‘Banking chronicle, …… etc.  In addition to that I have procured one copy of a text book called “Principles and Practices of Banking” by Macmillan Publications, which is used as the reference text for Diploma in Banking Studies.

8.  Who do you think is the competitor to public sector banks?
Of course there is no immediate competitor to speak of even though new generation banks and some of the old generation scheduled banks appear to be competitors.  These types of banks are not that much transparent in their terms and conditions.  Also they charge service charges and other hidden charges at very high exorbic rates.  Public sector banks with larger network of banks could only render the best possible banking service in the country.

9.  What do you think should be the solution to improve banking services?
Opening of new branches in unbanked areas, especially in rural areas because  in our country, rural people are not enjoying many of the banking facilities.  Adequate staff must be posted to carry out these functions in an effective manner.  The staff must be given both on-the-job training and off-the-job training to improve their skills and to boost their morale.

10.  Once you are selected, when could you perform your duties independently?
Sir, I will be learning the work in the shortest possible time as I told you earlier that I’m a quick learner.  With the youthful buoyancy in me, I will be executing what I have learned into practice.  Definitely, the institution will be giving me some sort of training and clubbed with my banking knowledge which I amassed with this purpose in mind, I could be able to execute my duties independently in the shortest possible time, I believe.

Wednesday, December 28, 2011

INTERVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS


The answers given are those of the writer.  You can change them according to your vision.  In any case the answers given should be correlating with the qualifications and experience you have, at the time of attending the interview.  All your abilities and strengths, qualifications and efforts should be directed to do some good to the bank.  Your answers must be framed in that manner.  Join the site and post your comments.

1.  Kindly introduce yourself.
I’m Neethu from Palakkad in Kerala. I did my MBA from Nehru College, Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu last year.  I did my plus two from BEM school in Palakkad and I had my schooling in the same school.  During my college and school days, I devoured all my efforts to studies.  I consider myself as a very hard working, sincere person not reluctant to take up challenges.  I even take this job as a challenging one as this is an opportunity to put into practice the managerial skills I learned during my college days.  I am a person of cool and calm nature and I believe,  it will enable me to take up those challenges and make them into opportunities.

2.  Why do you think you are fit to the post?
I’m a quick learner
I have confidence
I could give competition to others
I’m a good decision maker
I am confident enough to complete the tasks in appointed time.
I believe I can contribute to bank profits

3.  What are your career goals? Where do you see yourself five years from now? Ten years?
My goal is to get nice job in a public sector bank . I want to lead a well settled life and will try to develop the skill in banking.  I believe I could become a manager in five years from now through sincere hard work.

4.  Why do you prefer bank job after becoming a post graduate in some other discipline?
Today banking sector is one of the most growing sector, second thing is this job will give me right platform to enhance my managerial skills and come to the top as a performer.

5.   What you think is your strength?
Generally I’m calm and composed to draw alternative solutions to various levels of difficult situations,  I could hold my patience till the outcome is generated. I can be a  significant team player with confidence, to move a plan in the desired direction for the attainments of targets and tasks, the institution entrust upon me.

Tuesday, December 20, 2011

REASONING - SOLVED PAPER


Reasoning
 
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Sand
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall
Ans : (E)
2. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (D)
4. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of - 17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (D)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass
Ans : (E)
7. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these
Ans: (B)
8. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
10. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) These questions are based on the following letter/number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
T 8 # 1 7 F J 5 % E R @ 4 D A 2 B © Q K 3 1 ● U H 6 L
11. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a vowel ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) E@%
(B) #78
(C) 5EJ
(D) U6●
(E) QKB
Ans : (E)
13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)
14. What will come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
TL8 #6I 7HF ?
(A) FUJ
(B) JU●
(C) FU●
(D) JU5
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following is seventh to the right of thirteenth from the right ?
(A) 1
(B) ●
(C) F
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each question below are given three statements followed by two conclus ions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answer (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) is correct answer and indicate it on the answersheet. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
Ans : (C)
16. Statements:
Some cards are plastics.
Some Plastics are metals.
All metals are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are cards.
II. No pot is a card.
Ans : (C)
17. Statements:
All chairs are tables.
All tables are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. All tables are buses.
II. All trains are tables.
Ans : (A)
18. Statements:
Some machines are computers.
Some computers are calculators.
Some calculators are phones.
Conclusions :
I. Some phones are computers.
II. Some computers are machines.
Ans : (B)
19. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
Some bowls are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are spoons.
II. Some plates are bowls.
Ans : (D)
20. Statements:
Some envelopes are packets.
Some packets are boxes.
All boxes are parcels.
Conclusions :
I. Some parcels are packets.
II. Some parcels are boxes.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question (E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
21. Among D, B, J, T and F who was the first person to reach the office ?
I. D reached before J and F but after B.
II. B was not the first to reach office.
Ans : (E)
22. What is the code for ‘not’ in the code language ?
I. In the code language ‘do not go’ is written as ‘la ra de’.
II. In the code language ‘go to school’ is written as ‘ka ma ra.’
Ans : (D)
23. How many children are there in the class ?
I. Rita ranks 23rd from the top.
II. Anita ranks 17th from the bottom and is five ranks above Rita.
Ans : (E)
24. How is Neela related to Deepa ?
I. Neela’s mother is Deepa’s brother’s wife.
II. Neela is the only granddaughter of Deepa’s mother.
Ans : (C)
25. R is in which direction with respect to T ?
I. R is to the east of H who is to the north of T.
II. Q is to the east of T and to the South of R
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) These questions are based on the following arrangements I & II. Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow—
I. P T 7 A # 4 B C 3 @ K F 1 9 ●
II. E H L © 6 8 $ U 5 J M 2 D% 1
26. How many such symbols are there in arrangements I & II together each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a numeral ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
27. If P7© : TAL : : B3J : ?
(A) @KJ
(B) C@J
(C) C@5
(D) 3KJ
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. Which element will be third to the right of seventh element from right end in the arrangement I if the order of its elements is reversed ?
(A) 7
(B) #
(C) F
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the position of the elements in the above two arrangements ?
H7 ©# 8B ?
(A) U3
(B) $C
(C) 3J
(D) UC
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. If the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth elements in arrangement II are replaced by the respective elements in arrangement I, which element will be third to the left of sixth element from the right end in arrangement II ?
(A) $
(B) B
(C) 7
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Symbols @, %, ●, $ and # are used with following meanings— ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A ● B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B.’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Give answer—
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
31. Statements : G @ H, H ● Q, Q $ M
Conclusions : I. M % G
II. H $ M
Ans : (E)
32. Statements : F ● B, B @ E, E # J
Conclusions : I. F @ E
II. J $ B
Ans : (A)
33. Statements : R $ H, H % M, M # F
Conclusions : I. F $ H
II. F @ R
Ans : (D)
34. Statements : T # L, L % W, W @ V
Conclusions : I. L % V
II. T % W
Ans : (B)
35. Statements : K % L, L # T, I $ T
Conclusions : I. L % I
II. L ● I
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 36–40) These questions are based on the following information— Seven persons R, J, M, Q, L, T and K conduct workshop on Developing Managerial skills in seven different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G on a different day of the week from Monday to Sunday. The order of persons, companies and days of the week are not necessarily the same. J organizes workshop in Company D on Wednesday. Q does not conduct workshop for companies A or C and conducts on the next day of L who conducts the workshop for Company F. T conducts workshop for Company E on Friday. K conducts workshop on Monday but not for Company C or G. M conducts workshop for Company A but not on Tuesday.
36. Who conducts workshop on Saturday ?
(A) M
(B) Q
(C) L
(D) Q or L
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. On which day does Q conduct the workshop ?
(A) Sunday
(B) Saturday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. M conducts workshop on which day ?
(A) Saturday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Which of the following combinations of person-company and day is correct ?
(A) K–B–Wednesday
(B) R–B–Monday
(C) K–C–Monday
(D) K–G–Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
40. Who conducts workshop for Company C and on which day ?
(A) R, Thursday
(B) R, Tuesday
(C) Q, Saturday
(D) Q, Sunday
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41–45) Below in each question are given two statements (a) and (b). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement (a) is the cause and statement (b) is its effect
(B) If statement (b) is the cause and statement (a) is its effect
(C) If both the statements (a) and (b) are independent causes
(D) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (a) and (b) are effects of some common cause
41. (a) Government of state ‘X’ imposed a higher sales tax on petroleum products compared to the neighbouring states.
(b) All the petrol pumps in the state observed ‘bandh’ in protest.
Ans : (A)
42. (a) Attendance for the All India examination held in July 2006 was poor at all the centres.
(b) Western States of the country were affected by heavy floods during July 2006.
Ans : (D)
43. (a) High Court has declared stay on construction of residential buildings on the land under dispute.
(b) A large number of middle class salaries people had booked flats in the buildings under
dispute.
Ans : (C)
44. (a) Residents in the locality have now decided to launch a cleanliness drive.
(b) Civic authorities in the city have recorded many cases of Cholera and gastro.
Ans : (B)
45. (a) Senior citizens of the city have complained about the late night disturbance caused due to loudspeakers used during festivals.
(b) Though, the Government has issued a directive banning late night celebrations involving use of loudspeakers, it is not being strictly followed in some of the areas.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 46–50) An organization wants to recruit Manager—HRD for its umbai division. The following criteria have been laid down, to be eligible for selection. The candidate must—
(a) Be a graduate in any discipline passed in first class with minimum 60% marks
(b) Have done post graduate degree/diploma in HRD or personnel management with minimum 65% marks
(c) Have cleared the selection test with minimum 50% marks
(d) Have cleared the interview with minimum 45% marks
(e) Be not less than 21 years and not more than 28 years of age as on 1.2.2007. However, if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except for—
(i) At (b) above but has got-at-least two years post-qualification experience of working in HRD department case may be referred to the Chairman of the organisation.
(ii) At (c) above but has secured minimum 45% marks in selection test and 55% marks in interview the case may be referred to the President of the organization.
In each of the questions below, information of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following five decisions based on the information provided and the criteria and conditions given above. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2007. You have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each question as follows. Give answer—
(A) If the candidate is to be selected
(B) If the candidate is not to be selected
(C) If the case is to be referred to Chairman
(D) If the case is to be referred to President
(E) If the data provided is not adequate to decide the course of action
46. Nalini Zaveri has done her graduation in Arts in first class with 60% marks and postgraduate management diploma in HRD with 62% marks. Her date of birth is 16.1.1981. She has been working in the HRD department of a bank for past three years after completing her postgraduation diploma in HRD. She has secured 55% marks in selection test and 50% marks in interview.
Ans : (C)
47. Rajesh Nalawade is a B. Sc. In first class with 75% marks and post-graduate in personnel management with 60% marks. He is working as an Officer in administration department of an organisation for past two years. He has secured 55% marks in selection test and 52% marks in interview. He has completed 26 years of age in November 2006.
Ans : (B)
48. Shyam Bansode has passed B. Com. in first class with 65% marks and MBA in personnel management with 72% marks. He has cleared the selection test with 58% marks and interview with 52% marks. His date of birth is 17.5.1983.
Ans : (A)
49. Nikhil Agnihotri is a postgraduate in personnel management passed out in 2005 at the age of 24 years securing 71% marks. He has secured 62% marks in selection test and 57% marks in interview.
Ans: (E)
50. Sujata Shirke has passed out B. Com. in first class with 62% marks in 2003 at the age of 21 years. Thereafter she has done MBA with specialization in HRD with 72% marks. She has secured 48% marks in selection test and 58% marks in interview.
Ans : (D)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE-IBPS PO EXAM QUESTION PAPER


Directions—(1-5) : In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1. Women's rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well-being. A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's nations a few decades ago, ......... These range from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women's rights are only an issue in countries where religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.
(A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.
(B) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?
(C) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade age.
(D) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.
(E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.\
Ans : (A)

2. Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun's rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. ............ However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming-causing pollutants without tackling greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed, and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.
(A) This though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.
(B) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.
(C) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming
(D) At first, it sounds like and ironic saviour to climate change problems
(E) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate change is definitely here
Ans : (C)

3. Poverty is the state for the majority of the world's people and nations. Why is this ? .......... Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight ? What about their governments ? Hove they pursued policies that actually harm successful development ? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing interconnectedness promised by globalization are global decisions, policies, and practices. These are typically influenced, driven, or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions, and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.
(A) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?
(B) What is the government doing about it?
(C) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?
(D) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.
(E) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing
Ans : (A)


4. Analysts and industry pundits forecast that notebook market, which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years, is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions, and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010-11 saw notebook volumes rise, and for the first time a million plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry-level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It's simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down..........
(A) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.
(B) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.
(C) Thereby making them more expensive.
(D) Thus the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebook.
(E) Thus notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.
Ans : (C)

5. Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world....... Particularly, rush to technical and higher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and upgradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to face successfully competition in the job market.
(A) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.
(B) Naturally there is too much rush and competition in every field.
(C) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.
(D) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.
(E) In the next decade it will become the most populous.
Ans : (B)

Directions—(6-10) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) To elaborate briefly on these characteristics and dimensions that the author is talking about NRMs are general tests intended to be used to classify students by percentile for measuring either aptitude or proficiency for admissions into or placement within a program.
(B) Contrastingly, the CRM, such as a locally produced achievement test, measures absolute performance that is compared only with the learning objective, hence a perfect score is theoretically obtainable by all students who have a mastery of the prespecified material, or conversely, all students may fail the test.
(C) In most of these books the authors classify a measurement strategy as either norm referenced (NRM) or criterion referenced (CRM).
(D) Another author points out how the type of interpretation that an NRM offers is the relative performance of the students compared with that of all the others resulting in, ideally, a bell curve distribution.
(E) Numerous books on constructing and using language tests have been written by various authors.
(F) CRMs, on the other hand, are more specific, achievement or diagnostic tests intended to be used for motivating students by measuring to what percent they have achieved mastery of the tought or learned material.
(G) One of the authors clearly delineates the differences of these two types by focusing on the categories of "test characteristics" and "logistical dimensions."

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

7. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(11-15) : The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick up two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. The ability of a woman to do well does not .......... on whether it is a man's world or not, because everyone has his/her own opportunities.
(1) trust
(2) depend
(3) reckon
(4) live
(5) rest
(6) believe
(A) (4) and (5)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (1) and (6)
(D) (2) and (5)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

12. Drugs worth Rs. 3 lakhs were ......... from the apartment by the police.
(1) manufactured(2) ruptured
(3) seized
(4) confiscated
(5) bought(6) compard(A) (1) and (4)
(B) (2) and (3)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (5) and (6)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

13. An organisation .......... to the mission of road safety has prepared an action plan for reducing accidents and related injuries and fatalities.
(1) specified
(2) inaugurated
(3) committed
(4) kicked off(5) succumbed
(6) dedicated
(A) (3) and (6)
(B) (1) and (5)
(C) (3) and (5)
(D) (4) and (6)
(E) (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

14. A man reportedly .......... two passports with the same photograph, but under different names was arrested by the commissioner's Task Force.
(1) possessing
(2) examining(3) surrendering
(4) mastering
(5) holding
(6) fixating
(A) (2) and (3)
(B) (3) and (6)
(C) (1) and (5)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (4) and (5)
Ans : (C)

15. The Hollywood star and the Bollywood heroine are being ......... as the next big onscreen couple.
(1) labeled
(2) explained
(3) worshiped
(4) touted(5) exclaimed
(6) shouted
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (2) and (6)
(D) (1) and (4)
(E) (3) and (4)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(16-20) : Below is given a single word with options to its meaning in different contexts. You have to select all those options which are synonyms of the word when the context is changed. Select the correct altemative from (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) which represents all those synonyms.

16. MASK
(1) Cover
(2) Hide
(3) Conceal
(4) Disguise
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

17. REGULAR
(1) Present
(2) Common
(3) Indiscriminate
(4) Uniform
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (2) and (4)
(C) Both (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

18. LABOUR
(1) Expedite
(2) To mave faster
(3) Controlled
(4) Toil
(A) Only (4)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (A)

19. MEAN(1) Imply
(2) Understand
(3) Average
(4) Characterized by malice
(A) Only (3)
(B) Both (1) and (4)
(C) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(D) Only (1), (2) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (E)

20. ALONE
(1) exclusively
(2) Morose
(3) Solitary
(4) Human being
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (3)
(C) Both (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1), (3) and (4)
(E) All (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(21-35) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

As the country embarks on planning (21) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark (22) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements.

Growh is energy hungry, and the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (23) huge demands on the energy resources of the country. In this energy Jigsaw, renewable energy will (24) like never before in the 12th Plan and (25)

By the rule of the thumb, India will (26) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts-of copacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (27) by some parts of the government the Bureau of Energy Efficiency in particular needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the ternpered demand numbers are (28) to be below 80Gw. As against this need the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (29) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be (30) in the foresseable future. Between imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent cab be (31) to be added in the five-year time block.

(32) (33) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (34) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (35) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

21. (A) On
(B) Against
(C) For
(D) Onwards
(E) At
Ans : (C)

22. (A) Where
(B) That
(C) Inside
(D) Always
(E) Who
Ans : (D)

23. (A) Replace
(B) Forward
(C) Subject
(D) Place
(E) Demand
Ans : (D)

24. (A) Light
(B) Pass
(C) Publish
(D) Feature
(E) Find
Ans : (D)

25. (A) Earlier
(B) Likewise
(C) Publicity
(D) Next
(E) After
Ans : (E)

26. (A) Consumed
(B) Waste
(C) Require
(D) Highlight
(E) Generate
Ans : (C)

27. (A) Developmental
(B) Structures
(C) Efforts
(D) Projections
(E) Practices
Ans : (C)

28. (A) Likely
(B) Sure
(C) Unsure
(D) Unexpected
(E) Unlikely
Ans : (E)

29. (A) Expected
(B) Nominal
(C) Excelied
(D) Higher
(E) Lower
Ans : (D)

30. (A) Marginal
(B) Failure
(C) Success
(D) Dangerous
(E) Maxiimum
Ans : (A)

31. (A) Sure
(B) Certain
(C) Linked
(D) remarked
(E) Expected
Ans : (E)

32. (A) As
(B) When
(C) But
(D) However
(E) If
Ans : (A)

33. (A) Against
(B) For
(C) With
(D) Is
(E) Ever
Ans : (A)

34. (A) Capacity
(B) Through
(C) Project
(D) Versus
(E) Against
Ans : (B)

35. (A) Generating
(B) Lightening
(C) Making
(D) Touching
(E) Saving
Ans : (D)

Directions—(36-43) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policymakers and economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying. The country's Central Bank has predicted that the country's economy is likely to grow at a double digit rate during the next 20-30 years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit. But the private sector which is supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the world's tenth largest economy to its third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business people often carp about India's problems but their irritation this time has a nervous edge. In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7,8 percent; in 2005-07 it managed 9-10 percent. The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly withdrawn. At the same time the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food prices has spread more widely, casting doubt over wheher India can grow at 8-10 percent in the medium term without overheating.

In India, as in many fast growing nations, the confidence to invest depends on the conviction that the long term trajectory is intact and it is that which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes seem happier to invest abroad that at home, in deals thatare often hailed as symbois of the country's growing clout but sometimes speak to its weaknesses - purchases of natural resources that India has in abundance but struggles to get out of the ground. In fact a further dip in investment could be selffulfilling: if fewer roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt both short term growth figures and reduce the economy's long term capacity.

There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured the government need not try very hard. The liberalisation reforms that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant competition, at the same time what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc remain unreformed and largely under state control, which creates difficulties. Clearngces today can take three to four years and many employers are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour force. This can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee creation and an education system that means finding quality manpower a major problem. In fact the Planning Commission, concluded that even achieving 9 percent growth will need marked policy action in unreformed sectors. Twenty years age it was said that yardstick against which India should be measured was its potential and it is clear that there remains much to do.

36. Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at present?
(A) It can comfortably achieve double digit growth rare at present.
(B) High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
(C) citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
(D) Private sector confidence in India's growth potential is high.
(E) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
Ans : (A)

37. Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian balour force?
(1) India's labour force is overqualified for the employment opportunities available.
(2) High attrition rate among employees stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit.
(3) Labour laws are not conducive to generating emploment.
(A) Only (3)
(B) All (1), (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. What is the state of India's basic input sectors at present?
(A) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
(B) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
(C) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
(D) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed by the State.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?
(A) Showcasing the potential of India's growth potential to entice foreign investors .
(B) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its potential.
(C) Recommending India's model of development to other developing countries
(D) Berating the private sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects.
(E) Criticising the measures taken by India during the global economic crisis.
Ans : (B)

40. What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8 percent had?
(1) Indian Industry is anxious about India's economic growth.
(2) India has achieved status as the world's third largest economy at present.
(3) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased.
(A) Only (1)
(B) All (1), (B) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word CLOUT given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Strike
(B) Standing
(C) Force
(D) Launch
(E) Achieve
Ans : (B)

42. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word MARKED given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Decreased
(B) Lgnored
(C) Clear
(D) Assessed
(E) Imperceptible
Ans : (E)

43. What measures do experts suggest be taken to ensure targeted economic growth?
(A) Loweing of interest rates to help industries hit by recession.
(B) Prolonged financial support for basic input industries.
(C) Incentives to Indian companies to invest in infrastucture.
(D) Formulation of policies and their implementation in factor markets
(E) Stringent implementation of licensing system.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(44-50) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In many countries, a combustible mixture of authoritarianism, unemployment and youth has given rise to disaffection with strongmen rulers which has in turn spilld over into uprising. Young people in these countries are far better educated than their parents were. In 1990 the average Egyptian had 4.4 years of schooling; by 2010 the figure had risen to 7.1 years. Could it be that education, by making people less willing to put up with restrictions on freedom and more willing to question authority, promotes democratization. Ideas about the links between education, Income and democracy are at the heart of what social scientists have long studied. Since then plenty of economists and political scientists have looked for statistical evidence of a causal link between education and democratization. Many have pointed to the strong correlation that exists between levels of education and measures like the pluralism of party politics and the existence of civil liberties. The patterns are similar when income and democracy are considered. There are outliers, of course - until recently, many Arab countries managed to combine energy-based wealth and decent education with undemocratic political systems. But some deduce from the overall picture that as China and other authoritarian states get more educated and richer, their people will agitate for greater political freedom, culminating in a shift to a more democratic form of government.

This apparently reasonable intuition is shakier than it seems. Critics of the hypothesis point out that correlation is hardly causation. The general trend over the past half century may have been towards rising living standards, a wider spread of basic education and more democracy, but it is entirely possible that this is being by another variable. Even if the correlation were not spurious, it would be difficult to know which way causation ran. Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary school whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies has shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the woment in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, raiway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.

44. Which of the following most aptly describes the central theme of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are richer and have a better track record of educating their citizens.
(B) Education does not necessarily lead to greater enthusiasm for a democratic form of government
(C) Educated societies with autocratic form of government enjoy a better quality of life than democracies.
(D) Citizens can fulfill their personal aspirations only under a democratic form of government.
(E) Democracy makes citizens more intolerant as it does not restrict personal freedoms.
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word PROMOTES given in bold as used in the passage?
(A) Upgrades
(B) Prefers
(C) Recommends
(D) Advocates
(E) Publicises
Ans : (D)

46. What conclusion can be drawn from the statistics cited about Egypt's education system?
(A) Job prospects have been on the rise in Egypt in recent times.
(B) Authoritarian leaders have played a vital role in reforming Egypt's education system.
(C) Egypt has one of the youngest and best educated demographies in the world.
(D) Egypt is likely to be successful vibrant democracy.
(E) There has been a rise in education levels in Egypt in recant times.
Ans : (E)

47. In the context of the passage which of the following characterise (s) democracies?
(1) Active participation of majority of educated citizens in electoral process.
(2) Fast paced economic growth and accountability of those in power.
(3) Better standards of living and access to higher education.
(A) All (1), (2) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. What according to the author has led to uprisings in authoritarian countries?
(A) Lack of access to education.
(B) Vast numbers of uneducated and unemployable youth.
(C) Frustration with the existing system of governance.
(D) Unavailability of natural energy resources like coal and oil.
(E) Government's overambitious plans for development.
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following is/are true about China in the context of the passage?
(1) China's citizens are in favour of a more representative form of government.
(2) China has made huge strides in infrastructure developments.
(3) China is in the midst of a political revolution.
(A) None (B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

50. What does the phrase "messiness of democracy" convey in the context of the passage?
(A) Democratic nations are chaotic on account of individual freedoms.
(B) Most democratic countries frequently have violent revolts among their citizens.
(C) The divide between the poor and educated is growing wider in democracies.
(D) High levels of pollution on account of frentic pace of infrastructurd development.
(E) Resigned acceptance of intrinsic corruption in the education system.
Ans : (C)

Monday, December 19, 2011

MORE BANKING MCQs

BANKERS ACADEMY, PALAKKAD
1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s 
education
(D) Development of Rural India
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
18.In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Non-scheduled Bank

(Please see that the answers are bolded)

BANKING GK

BANKERS ACADEMY, PALAKKAD

1) The Largest commercial bank in India?
a) RBI
b) SBI
c) ICICI Bank
d) PNB
e) HDFC Bank
2) The origin of the State Bank of India goes back to the first deca-de of the nineteenth century
with the establishment of?
a) Bank of Calcutta
b) Bank of Bengal
c) Bank of Bombay
d) Bank of Madras
e) None
3) Which bank came into existence in 1921 when three banks namely Bank of Bengal(1806), Bank of Bombay (1840) & Bank of Madras(1843) were reorganized and amalgamated to form a single banking entity?
a) Imperial Bank of India
b) State Bank of India
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Punjab National Bank
e) None
4) SBI act was passed in Parliament in?
a) 1935
b) 1949
c) 1955
d) 1969
e) 1980
5) The State Bank of India was constituted on?
a) 1 April 1935
b) 1 January 1949
c) 1 July 1955
d) 1 September 1956
e) None
6) The Head Office of SBI is in?
a) New Delhi
b) Kolkata
c) Chennai
d) Hyderabad
e) Mumbai
7) The Chairman of SBI is?
a) D.Subbarao
b) Pratip chaudhuri
c) Chanda Kochhar
d) K.R.Kamath
e) None
8)  At present, the number of associate banks of SBI?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
e) None
9) Which bank was merged with SBI in 2008?
a) State Bank of Travancore
b) State Bank of Patiala
c) State Bank of Mysore
d) State Bank of Indore
e) State Bank of Saurashtra
10) Which bank was merged with SBI in 2010?
a) State Bank of Travancore
b) State Bank of Patiala
c) State Bank of Mysore
d) State Bank of Indore
e) State Bank of Saurashtra
11) The first associate bank of SBI?
a) State Bank of Travancore
b) State Bank of Patiala
c) State Bank of Mysore
d) State Bank of Indore
e) State Bank of Hyderabad
12) Which bank has the largest branch network in India?
a ) RBI
b) PNB
c) HDFC Bank
d) ICICI Bank
e) None
13) SBI Life Insurance is a joint venture between State Bank of India and?
a) ABN Amro Bank
b) Deutsche Bank
c) Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)
d) American International Group (AIG)
e) BNP Paribas Assurance
14) SBI General Insurance is a joint venture between State Bank of India and?
a) American International Group (AIG)
b) Insurance Australia Group (IAG)
c) BNP Paribas
d) General Insurance Corporation
e) None
15) The country’s largest lender?
a) IDBI Bank
b) ICICI Bank
c) SBI
d) HDFC Bank
e) None
16) SBICI Bank (a Private Sector Bank) is wholly owned subsidiary of?
a) ICICI Bank
b) HDFC Bank
c) RBI
d) IDBI Bank
e) None
17) The government passed the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Banks) Act in?
a) 1934
b) 1949
c) 1955
d) 1959
e) None
18) Which of the following taglines is not associated with SBI?
a) With you all the way
b) Pure banking nothing else
c) The Banker to every Indian
d) The Nation banks on us
e) India’s International Bank
19) Which bank became the State Bank of India in 1955?
a) General Bank of India
b)Bank of Hindustan
c) Imperial Bank of India
d) Federal Bank of India
e) None
20) Which of the following pairings is not correct? (Banks & Head Offices)?
a) State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur – Jaipur
b) State Bank of Hyderabad – Hyderabad
c) State Bank of Mysore – Mysore
d) State Bank of Patiala – Patiala
e) State Bank of Travancore – Thiruvananthapuram
21) Which of the following banks is/are 100 per cent owned by SBI?
a) State Bank of Travancore
b) State Bank of Hyderabad and State Bank of Patiala
c) State Bank of Mysore
d) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
e) State Bank of Indore and State Bank of Saurashtra
22) The largest Associate Bank of State Bank of India?
a) State Bank of Hyderabad
b) State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur
c) State Bank of Mysore
d) State Bank of Patiala
e) State Bank of Travancore
23) The Managing Director of State Bank of Hyderabad(SBH)?
a) Pratip Chaudhuri
b) Renu Challu
c) Chanda Kochhar
d) Shikha Sharma
e) None
24) Which of the following rural banks is sponsored by State Bank of India?
a) Andhra Pragathi Grameena Bank
b) Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank
c) Deccan Grameena Bank
d) Chaitanya Godavari grameena Bank
e) None
25) Consider the following statements?
A. State Bank of Hyderabad was constituted as Hyderabad State Bank on 08.08.1941 under Hyderabad State Bank Act, 1941. In 1956, the Bank was taken over by Reserve Bank of India as its first subsidiary and its name was changed from Hyderabad State Bank to State Bank of Hyderabad. The Bank became a subsidiary of State Bank of India on the 1st October 1959 and is now the largest Associate Bank of State Bank of India.
B. State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur was established in 1963 after amalgamation of erstwhile State Bank of Jaipur (established in 1943) with State Bank of Bikaner (established in 1944) as a subsidiary of SBI.
C. State Bank of Mysore was established in the year 1913 as Bank of Mysore Ltd. under the patronage of the erstwhile Govt. of Mysore, at the instance of the banking committee headed by the great Engineer- Statesm-an,Late Dr.Sir M.Visvesvar-aya. Subsequently, in March 1960,the Bank became an Associate of State Bank of India.
D. ‘Patiala State Bank’ was christened as the Bank of Patiala and was became a subsidiary of the State Bank of India on 1st April,1960 when it was named as the State Bank of Patiala
E. State Bank of Travancore (SBT) was originally establi-shed as Travancore Bank Ltd. in 1945 sponsored by the erstwhile princely state of Travancore. Under a special statute of the Indian Parliam-ent (SBI subsidiary Banks
Act 1959) it was made an Associate of the SBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) A & B only
b) B & C only
c) C & D only
d) A, B & C only
e) All are correct
26) Which among the following acquired the RBI’s stake in SBI in 2007?
a) IDBI Bank
b) ICICI Bank
c) Government of India
d) Life Insurance Corporation
e) None
27) SBI Card is a joint venture between State Bank of India and
a) Standard Chartered?
b) Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation(HSBC)
c) ABN Amro Bank
d) BNP Paribas
e) GE Capital
28) The Commercial Bank of India LLC, Moscow, a 60:40 joint venture of the State Bank of India and?
a) Punjab National Bank
b) Corporation Bank
c) Bank of India
d) Canara Bank
e) Central Bank of India
29) SBI day is observed on?
a) January 1
b) April 1
c) July 1
d) August 1
e) None
30) The Net Profit of State Bank of India for the period 2010-2011?
a) 9166.05 crores
b) 8264.52 crores
c) 8500 crores
d) 9100 crores
e) None
ANSWERS
1) b 2) a 3) a 4) c 5) c 6) e 7) b 8)a 9) e 10) d 11) e 12) e 13) e 14) b 15) c 16) e 17) d 18) e
19) c 20) c 21) b 22) a 23) b 24) b 25) e 26) c 27) e 28) d 29) c 30) b




Friday, December 16, 2011

JUST HAVE A CASUAL READING!!!


COMPUTER BASICS

Things to remember

  • Any facts and figures collected for some purpose is known as data. Data in itself do not have any meaning
  • Meaningful presentation of data is known as information. Information is achieved after processing data.
  • We do not use computers to gather data but they are excellent devices to store, process and retrieve.
  • Arranging (in ascending/descending or any other order), calculating (add, subtract, multiply, divide or any other computations) or any sort of manipulation on data to derive required information is known as processing.
  • Bits is the abbreviation (short form) of Binary Digits. 8 bits makes one byte.
·         Hard is used in computer literatures to mean permanent and tangible such as hardware, hardcopy output etc
·         Soft is used in discussions to mean temporary and intangible such as software, softprint, softcopy output.
·         The term ‘Computer’ is a word and not abbreviation. So, the full form ‘Common Operating Machine Particularly Used for technical, Entertainment and Research’ is just a fun. It neither the full form nor defines computer properly.
  • The term ‘Computer’ is derived from its Latin origin ‘Computare’ which means to reckon (Add).
  • A more acceptable definition for computer is “an electronic device that accepts data as input, processes to produce output in suitable format. It can store data and information for future reference”.
  • A complete definition should be “an electronic device that accepts data input, process it and produce output which has features like speedy, accurate, reliable,  diligent, versatile and huge storage”.
  • Automatic is the feature of a machine that can complete task by itself after initial setup is done
  • Computers are 100% accurate but it can suffer from GIGO (Garbage-in-garbage-out).
  • The term GIGO means Computers may produce useless information if you provide wrong data or used wrong program.
  • Computers are reliable because they use electronic components which have very low failure rate
  • Computer is never tired and does not suffer from boredom. This feature illustrates diligence of computers.
  • Versatility indicates its diverse uses.
  • Computers are the best devices to store huge amount of data for extensive time duration.
  • The difference between a calculator and computer is highlighted by versatility.
  • Human being are superior to computers because we have intelligence. Computers are good at diligence than human beings.
  • Future generation of computers are expected to have artificial intelligence and be able to use natural language.
MEMORY AND SPEED
A group of 4 binary digits is called a nibble (4 bits = 1 Nibble). Similarly a group of 8 bits is called a byte (1 byte = 8 bits).
As you have seen the example above, each character requires 8 bits which is 1 byte. So 1 character requires 1 byte space. Now, if you have a text file whose size is 32 bytes, it means there are 32 x 8 binary digits (0s and 1s) stored in it.
In the metric system 1000 lifts up the unit to the higher such as 1000 meter is 1 kilometer, 1000 liter is 1 kiloliter etc. In binary numbering system it is 1024 (=2 10) that converts to higher unit. Following table lists the different units and their values:
Space Measurement Units
Units
Equivalent
0 or 1
1 Bit
4 bits
1 Nibble
8 bits
1 Byte
1024 bytes
1 Kilobytes (KB)
1024 Kilobytes
1 Megabyte (MB)
1024 Megabytes
1 Gigabytes (GB)
1024 Gigabytes
1 Terabytes (TB)
1024 Terabytes
1 Petabyte (PB)
1024 Petabytes
1 Exabyte (EB)

Oh! Surprising and new words. I guess you will hardly need units larger than petabyte for current purpose. These are all the units in ascending order. There are many units to represent quantities much smaller than bytes and bits.

Speed Measurement - Units

Well, speed is related to time and as you know computer is very speedy device. It can perform millions of tasks in one second. So to compare the speed of computer operation (execution of programs and instructions) we require some units that can represent a very small fraction of time. Following are the units used to indicate fraction of seconds:
ts
Units
Equivalent
1000 th of a second
1 Milliseconds (MS)
1000 th of a milliseconds
1 Microseconds (µs)
1000 th of a microseconds
1 Nanosecond (ns)
1000 th of a nanoseconds
1 Picoseconds (ps)
1000 th of a picoseconds
1 Femtoseconds (fs)


There are some more units, but I believe this would be sufficient for our course purpose.

Bankers Academy

IBPS CLERICAL RESULTS IN FEB 2012

BANKERS ACADEMY, PALAKKAD




The results of IBPS Clerical exam held in the month of December shall be released in February 2012, as per the reliable information from IBPS authorities.

Bankers Academy




PASS PERCENTAGE IN IBPS PO TEST 2011

BANKERS ACADEMY, PALAKKAD

How many cleared the IBPS PO exam 2011’ was one of the question that was frequently asked by many in online forums, once the results for the common test were out.The answer for it has come now.Yes, a little over 1 lakh have made it through. With these numbers coming out, its sure to create more talk. There are some interesting stats to share prior to this update.Lets see them!


The IBPS PO exam results were announced on December 12, 2011 based on the written test conducted in the month of September `11 that was attended by 10.4 lakh bank job aspirants.The online website displayed their status as ‘Pass’ or ‘Fail’.

How Many Passed?

As per a news article published on businessline, Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has said,
  • 1,11,993 candidates have passed the 1st common test for PO/ MT posts.
  • 36% of them are women
  • around 30% of the total are from rural areas
Only 10% Clear Test
We have decoded the statistics for you to understand more easily.
  • From the 10.4 lakhs who appeared for the test, only 1.11 lakh have passed – which is just 10.7%!!
  • Around 40,000 are women applicants & an equal number belong to rural parts of the country, as per the report.
What could be the possible reasons for the low level of pass percentage?

* Being the first common exam for bank jobs, candidates were nervous about the pattern & difficulty level.
* The paper was tough & lengthy that lead to shortage of time (see PO exam review)
* The necessity to secure minimum cut-off in each section to qualify could have also played a role.
So. it is clear from the above details that a lot of hardwork has to be put in for the next IBPS exam in 2012.

Bankers Academy